1) Aortic musculature of dorsal aorta is derived from which mesoderm
(a) Axial
(b) Para axial
(c) Intermediate
(d) Lateral
2) Barrett’s esophagus is diagnosed by which of the following
(a) Intestinal metaplasia
(b) Intestinal dysplasia
(c) Columnar metaplasia
(d) Columnar dysplasia
3) Chief cells are found at which part of the gastric gland
(a) Neck
(b) Isthmus
(c) Body
(d) Fundus
4) Intrinsic factor secreted by
(a) Oxyntic cells of stomach
(b) Chief cells of stomach
(c) Intestinal cells
(d) Enterochromaffin cell
5) Cell which does not migrate from the base of the crypt to ends of villi is
(a) Enterocyte
(b) Endocrine cell
(c) Paneth cell
(d) Goblet cell
6) Paneth cells are most characterized by
(a) High zinc content
(b) Numerous lysozyme granules
(c) Rich rough endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Foamy appearance
7) Not a feature of Kartagener Syndrome triad
(a) Bronchiectasis
(b) Chronic sinusitis
(c) Situs Inversus
(d) Infertility
8) Peyer’s patches are present in
(a) Duodenum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum
(d) Colon
9) Hassall’s corpuscle is present in
(a) Thymus
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Lung
10) What is the type of joint seen in the growth plate
(a) Fibrous
(b) Primary cartilaginous
(c) Secondary cartilaginous
(d) Plane synovial
11) All are fibrous joints except
(a) Gomphosis
(b) Syndesmosis
(c) Symphysis
(d) Suture
12) 3rd ventricle is situated between
(a) Within parietal lobe
(b) Caudate nucleus and putamen
(c) Within temporal lobe
(d) Thalamus and hypothalamus
13) Relations of internal capsule are
(a) Thalamus medially, caudate and lentiform nuclei laterally
(b) Thalamus laterally, caudate and lentiform nuclei medially
(c) Thalamus and caudate nucleus medially and lentiform nucleus laterally
(d) Thalamus and caudate nucleus laterally and lentiform nucleus medially
14) All are components of basal ganglia except
(a) Thalamus
(b) Caudate nucleus
(c) Substantia nigra
(d) Globus pallidus
15) Trochlear nerve arises from
(a) Forebrain
(b) Midbrain
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla oblongata
16) Facial colliculus located at
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla
(c) Mid brain
(d) Interpeduncular fossa
17) Optic nerve is which order neuron
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
18) Which of the following is not carried by posterior column tract
(a) Position sense
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Vibration
19) Which of the following pathway is involved in the ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand
(a) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
(b) Anterior spinothalamic tract
(c) Posterior spinothalamic tract
(d) Dorsal column
20) Function of spinocerebellar tract
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Coordinates movement
(c) Learning induced by changes in vestibular reflexes
(d) Planning and Programming
21) Cells present in cerebellar cortex are all except
(a) Bipolar
(b) Purkinje
(c) Golgi
(d) Granule
22) In cerebellar lesion not seen is
(a) Ataxia
(b) Nystagmus
(c) Intentional tremors
(d) Arreflexia
23) Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery infarct is
(a) Midbrain
(b) Pons
(c) Thalamus
(d) Cortex
24) Which is developed from all the 3 germ layers
(a) Tympanic membrane
(b) External acoustic meatus
(c) Auditory tube
(d) Middle ear
25) All developed up to the adult size at birth except
(a) Mastoid Antrum
(b) Tympanic cavity
(c) Orbital cavity
(d) Ear ossicle
26) Which Paranasal sinus is absent at birth
(a) Maxillary
(b) Ethmoid
(c) Frontal
(d) Sphenoid
27) Safety muscle of tongue is
(a) Genio-glossus
(b) Palato-glossus
(c) Hyo-glossus
(d) Stylo-glossus
28) Down & out eye occurs in lesion of the nerve
(a) Occulomotor
(b) Trochlear
(c) Abducent
(d) Sympathetic T-1
29) Argyll Robertson reaction is found in all except
(a) Adie syndrome
(b) Argyll Robertson Pupil
(c) Parinaud Syndrome
(d) Weber syndrome
30) Ptosis is due to lesion of
(a) Facial nerve
(b) Somatic fibres of occulomotor nerve
(c) Superior cervical ganglion
(d) Edinger Westphal nucleus
31) In superior oblique palsy diplopia is seen in
(a) Vertical and downward direction
(b) Horizontal and downward
(c) Vertical and outward
(d) Horizontal and upward
32) Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa
(a) 3rd to 12th
(b) 4th to 12th
(c) 5th to 12th
(d) 6th to 12th
33) Which tendon passes through pyramid of middle ear
(a) Stapedius
(b) Tensor tympani
(c) Tensor veli palatine
(d) Levator veli palatine
34) Parotid duct of Stensen’s open into the
(a) Vestibule of mouth at the level of upper second molar tooth
(b) Vestibule of mouth at the level of upper third molar tooth
(c) Oral cavity on sublingual fold
(d) Oral cavity on the sublingual papilla
35) Which structure hooks under arch of aorta
(a) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
(b) Phrenic nerve
(c) Cardiac branch of Left vagus
(d) Thoracic duct
36) An eroded lesion in the jugular foramen may damage which of the following pair of structures
(a) Vagus nerve and internal carotid artery
(b) Accessory nerve and external jugular vein
(c) Internal jugular vein and hypoglossal nerve
(d) Glossopharyngeal and internal jugular vein
37) Which of the following passes through foramen magnum
(a) Internal Carotid Artery
(b) Sympathetic chain
(c) Hypoglossal Nerve
(d) Vertebral Artery
38) Common carotid artery bifurcates at
(a) Upper border of cricoid cartilage
(b) Upper border of thyroid cartilage
(c) Hyoid bone
(d) Cricothyroid membrane
39) All lie at the vertebra level C-6 except
(a) Junction of pharynx with oesophagus
(b) Junction of larynx with trachea
(c) Cricoid cartilage
(d) Isthmus of thyroid
40) Eustachian tube opens behind
(a) Superior turbinate
(b) Superior meatus
(c) Middle turbinate
(d) Inferior turbinate
41) Which of the following is the type of joints between malleus and incus
(a) Primary cartilaginous
(b) Secondary cartilaginous
(c) Saddle synovial
(d) Ball & socket synovial
42) In 2 months infant spinal cord ends at
(a) Lower border of T12
(b) Lower border of L I
(c) Upper border of L 3
(d) Lower border of L 3
43) Following are the various structures related to spinal cord and their respective terminal extent. Choose the wrong pair
(a) Adult spinal cord: Transpyloric plane
(b) Pia mater: Coccyx
(c) Duramater: S2 vertebra
(d) Arachnoid sheath: S2 vertebra
44) Pentalogy of Fallot is characterized by
(a) Ventricular septal defect
(b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
(c) Atrial septal defect
(d) Pulmonary stenosis
45) Right heart of the border is formed by all except
(a) SVC
(b) IVC
(c) Right atrium
(d) Right ventricle
46) If the right coronary artery is blocked by a fat globule after giving off the right marginal artery, which of the following structures may have oxygen deficiency
(a) Right atrium
(b) Sinoatrial node
(c) Atrioventricular node
(d) Root of the pulmonary trunk
47) Posterior interventricular artery is a branch of right coronary artery in most of the people (right dominance). In 10% population it arises from
(a) Circumflex artery
(b) Left coronary artery
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) Right coronary artery
48) The Great cardiac vein lies in which groove
(a) Anterior part of right coronary sulcus
(b) Posterior part of right coronary sulcus
(c) Anterior interventricular groove
(d) Posterior interventricular groove
49) Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus, which of the following cardiac veins might remain normal in diameter
(a) Middle cardiac vein
(b) Anterior cardiac vein
(c) Small cardiac vein
(d) Oblique cardiac vein
50) Which bronchopulmonary segment is missing from left lung
(a) Anterior basal
(b) Medial basal
(c) Posterior basal
(d) Antero-medial basal
51) A bed-ridden patient on liquid diet develops aspiration pneumonia. Which of the following is bronchopulmonary segment is most likely affected
(a) Posterior of right upper lobe
(b) Inferior lingular of left upper lobe
(c) Apical of Right lower lobe
(d) Posterior of Right lower lobe
52) Structure passing along with aorta in aortic hiatus
(a) Thoracic duct and azygous vein
(b) Thoracic duct and hemizygous vein
(c) Left Vagus nerve and azygous vein
(d) Left gastric vein and vagus nerve
53) A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by
(a) Deep cardiac plexus
(b) Superficial cardiac plexus
(c) Phrenic nerve
(d) Subcostal nerve
54) All is true about phrenic nerve except
(a) Anterior primary rami of C-3,4,5
(b) Passes anterior to scalenus anterior
(c) Passes posterior to hilum of lung
(d) Right is shorter and more vertical
55) Arch of aorta begins at the vertebra level
(a) T2
(b) T3
(c) T4
(d) T5
56) All are branches of the posterior cord of brachial plexus except
(a) Axillary nerve
(b) Radial nerve
(c) Long thoracic nerve
(d) Thoracodorsal nerve
57) Which muscle may not be paralysed in Erb’s palsy
(a) Brachioradialis
(b) Coraco-brachialis
(c) Teres minor
(d) Deltoid
58) Erb’s palsy which is not seen
(a) Adduction of the arm
(b) Extension at the elbow
(c) Pronation at forearm
(d) External rotation of the arm
59) All is true about Radial nerve except
(a) Continuation of lateral cord of brachial plexus
(b) Root value is C-5,6,7,8 and T-1
(c) Damaged in fracture shaft of humerus
(d) Cock up splint is used for its injury in radial groove
60) Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove may result in all except
(a) Spare nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus
(b) Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle
(c) Leaves extension at elbow joint intact
(d) Weakens supination movement
61) All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except
(a) Extensor carpi radialis longus
(b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
(c) Finger extensors
(d) Sensation on dorsum of hand
62) Most common nerve damaged in supracondylar fracture is
(a) Median
(b) Anterior Interosseous
(c) Ulnar
(d) Radial
63) All are retractors of scapula except
(a) Levator scapulae
(b) Trapezius
(c) Rhomboideus major
(d) Rhomboideus minor
64) All happens during shoulder abduction except
(a) Elevation of humerus
(b) Rotation of sternoclavicular joint
(c) Movement at acromioclavicular joint
(d) Medial rotation of scapula
65) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk
(a) Costo-clavicular
(b) Coraco-clavicular
(c) Acromio-clavicular
(d) Coraco-humeral
66) Allen’s test is done for checking
(a) Neural disorders
(b) Patency of ulnar artery
(c) Patency of radial artery
(d) Blood flow in cephalic vein
67) Content of anatomical snuff box
(a) Radial nerve
(b) Radial artery
(c) Cephalic vein
(d) Anterior interosseous artery
68) Supination and pronation occur at the joint
(a) Elbow
(b) Radio-ulnar
(c) Wrist
(d) Intercarpal
69) Sterno-clavicular joint is a synovial variety
(a) Plane
(b) Condylar
(c) Ellipsoid
(d) Saddle
70) All are derivatives of Septum Transversum except
(a) Falciform ligament
(b) Ligamentum teres
(c) Coronary ligament
(d) Lesser omentum
71) Which of the following structure doesn’t develop in mesentery of stomach
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas
72) Diaphragm develops from all except
(a) Septum transversum
(b) Dorsal mesocardium
(c) Pleuroperitoneal membrane
(d) Cervical myotomes
73) Physiological umbilical hernia in fetus reduces in which month
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
74) False about Meckel’s diverticulum is
(a) Meckel diverticulum is the 2nd most common congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract
(b) Present at anti-mesenteric border
(c) All 3 layers of muscles are present
(d) Technetium-99m (99mTc) pertechnetate scan is the investigation of choice
75) Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of
(a) Left gastric
(b) Coeliac trunk
(c) Splenic
(d) Gastroduodenal
76) A patient has a penetrating ulcer of the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which blood vessel is subject to erosion
(a) Common hepatic artery
(b) Gastroduodenal artery
(c) Proper hepatic artery
(d) Anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
77) Not present at the transpyloric plane
(a) L-1 vertebra
(b) Right suprarenal gland
(c) Tip of ninth cartilage
(d) Fundus of gallbladder
78) Segmental resection was performed removing part of liver lying left of the ligamentum teres. The segments removed were
(a) 2,3
(b) 1,4
(c) 2,4
(d) 1,4,5
79) All is true about Morgagnian hernia except
(a) Congenital defect in diaphragm
(b) Passes through left part of diaphragm
(c) Occurs between the xiphoid and costal margins
(d) On CXR appears in anterior mediastinum
80) Appendices epilpoicae are present in
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Caecum
(c) Sigmoid colon
(d) Rectum
81) Most common location of appendix
(a) Pre-ileal
(b) Post-ileal
(c) Retro-caecal
(d) Pelvic
82) Nervi erigentes supply all except
(a) Uterus
(b) Urinary bladder
(c) Rectum
(d) Appendix
83) Ureteric constriction is seen at all of the following positions except
(a) Pelvi-ureteric junction
(b) Crossing of iliac artery
(c) Uretero-vesicle junction
(d) Ischial spine
84) Untrue about prostate is
(a) Behind the urethra and between the two ejaculatory ducts lie the median lobe
(b) Colliculus seminalis is an elevation on veru-montanum showing three openings
(c) Its urethra is concave anteriorly
(d) Its urethra is trapezoid in shape
85) Urethral crest is situated in which urethra
(a) Prostatic
(b) Membranous
(c) Penile
(d) Bulbar
86) The length of the male urethra is
(a) 15cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 25cm
(d) 30cm
87) All are vaginal sphincters except
(a) Pubo-vaginalis
(b) External urethral sphincter
(c) Bulbospongiosus
(d) Internal urethral sphincter
88) Lymphatic drainage of distal spongy urethra is towards the lymph nodes
(a) Superficial inguinal
(b) Deep inguinal lymph
(c) External iliac
(d) Internal iliac
89) Muscle which can cause both flexion at knee as well as thigh
(a) Rectus femoris
(b) Sartorius
(c) Gracillis
(d) Biceps femoris
90) Hybrid muscles are all except
(a) Pectineus
(b) Adductor magnus
(c) Tensor fascia lata
(d) Biceps femoris
91) Superior gluteal nerve acts at hip joint for
(a) Abduction & lateral rotation
(b) Abduction & medial rotation
(c) Adduction & medial rotation
(d) Adduction & lateral rotation
92) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting
(a) Sartorius
(b) Gracilis
(c) Plantaris
(d) Semi tendinosus
93) Abduction of the thigh is limited by
(a) Tension in the adductors
(b) Tension in the adductors and iliofemoral ligament
(c) Tension in the adductors and pubofemoral ligament
(d) Tension in the adductors and ischiofemoral ligament
94) Physiological locking involves
(a) Internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
(b) Internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
(c) External rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
(d) External rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
95) A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. What will happen when he fully extends the knee
(a) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
(b) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial border of patella
(c) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of patella
(d) No change in relationship
96) Housemaid knee is due to inflammation of
(a) Suprapatellar bursa
(b) Infrapatellar bursa
(c) Prepatellar bursa
(d) Popliteal bursa
97) A player has suffered hockey stick injury to the lateral part of the left leg just below the knee. He drags his left toe when he walks and cannot feel the dorsum of the foot. Which of the following will still be intact
(a) Dorsiflexion
(b) Eversion
(c) Cutaneous sensation of the medial leg
(d) Cutaneous sensation between the great toe and the second toe
98) Inversion & Eversion mainly happen at which joint
(a) Inferior tibio-fibular
(b) Ankle
(c) Subtalar
(d) Calcaneo-cuboid
99) S1 nerve root irritation due to slip disc, will result in pain located along the
(a) Anterior aspect of the thigh
(b) Medial aspect of the thigh
(c) Anteromedial aspect of the leg
(d) Lateral side of the foot
100) In L5 root involvement, which among the following is not affected
(a) Thigh adduction
(b) Knee flexion
(c) Knee extension
(d) Toe extension
The World Of Anatomy 
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March 2nd, 2012 at 2:49 pm
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April 28th, 2012 at 5:01 pm
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