Practice Paper 1

1)      The auricle develops from

A)    1st branchial cleft

B)    1st branchial arch

C)    1st and 2nd branchial arch

D)    1st, 2nd and 3rd branchial arch


2)      Fibro-cartilage has the predominance of collagen type

A) Ι    B) ΙΙ    C) ΙΙΙ   D) ΙV


3)      Facial nerve has all the neural column as major functional components except

A)    Special visceral afferent

B)    General visceral efferent

C)    General visceral afferent

D)    Special visceral efferent


4)      Fundus of gall bladder lies in the angle between lateral border of rectus abdominis and tip of ninth costal cartilage. The vertebral level is lower border of

a) T-11                   b) T-12

c) L-1                    d) L-2


5)      Which of the following is true

  1. Left lung is heavier than right lung
  2. Thoracic duct is related to mediastinal surface of right lung
  3. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is related to mediastinal surface of right lung
  4. Azygos vein is related to mediastinal surface of right lung


6)      False regarding autonomic nervous system

A)    Lateral horns of spinal cord mainly harbour cell bodies of the sympathetic nerves

B)    Preganglionic para sympathetic fibers are usually longer than preganglionic sympathetic fibers

C)    Occulomotor nerve carries the post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers

D)    Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia


7)      Referred pain from the cervix is felt in the region of

A) Hypogastrium  B) Anterior genitalia

C) Medial thigh     D) Posterior thigh


8)      Composite muscles include the following except

A)    Pectineus

B)    Adductor magnus

C)    Flexor carpi ulnaris

D)    Flexor pollicis brevis


9)      All is true about Triangle of Doom except

A)    Vas deferens lies medially

B)    Testicular vessels lie laterally

C)    Surgical staples are avoided here

D)    Apex is directed towards superficial ring


10)  All is true about zona pellucida except

A)    Acellular glycoprotein membrane

B)    Contributed by granulosa cells

C)    Present till morula stage

D)    Sperm attractant membrane turns sperm-repellent after zona reaction


11)  Incorrect statement about allantois is

A)    An endodermal diverticulum

B)    Its mesoderm expands to form the blood vessels to serve the placenta

C)    Urachus is the remnant lying in the medial umbilical ligament

D)    Patent allantois leads to Urachal fistula


12)  Choose the incorrect statement regarding structures constituting the anatomical angina pectoris:

  1. The pain fibres from heart run in the middle and inferior cervical cardiac branches of sympathetic trunk
  2. The superficial cardiac plexus receives left superior cervical cardiac branch from vagus nerve
  3. Sympathetic fibres come from cervical and upper thoracic ganglia of sympathetic trunk to carry pain fibres
  4. Thoracic splanchnic nerve carry the pain fibres from diaphragmatic surface of heart


13)  All are neural crest cell derivatives except

A)    Vomer bone

B)    Choroid & sclera of eye

C)    Tunica media of great vessels

D)    Olfactory epithelium


14)  A middle aged woman complains of weakness in extension and laterally rotation of her thigh. The muscle paralysed is

A) Semimembranosus       B) Sartorius

C) Obturator internus        D) Gluteus maximus


15)  Wrong statement regarding oogenesis is

A)    Meiosis converts primary to secondary oocyte

B)    Primary oocyte is arrested in metaphase- 1 till puberty

C)    Polar body one is released 24 hours prior to ovulation

D)    Ovulated cell is secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase- 2


16)  A patient who has suffered severe chest trauma in an automobile accident is found to have fluid in the right pleural space. A thoracentesis reveals the presence of chylous fluid in the pleural space, suggesting a rupture of the thoracic duct. In which regions of the thorax is the thoracic duct found. 

  1. Anterior and middle mediastinum
  2. Anterior and superior mediastinum
  3. Middle and superior mediastinum
  4. Posterior and superior mediastinum


17)  2nd constriction in oesophagus is seen at the following site

  1. Where crossed by left main bronchus
  2. Crossing of aorta
  3. At pharyngoesophageal junction
  4. Where it pierces the diaphragm


18)  All is true about development & maturation of sperms except

A)    Primordial germ cells are dormant till puberty

B)    Spermatogonium becomes mature sperm in 74 days

C)    Progressive motility is gained in the epididymis

D)    Stored in the seminal vesicle before ejaculation


19)  Correct statement concerning sexual development is

A)    Gonadal ridge appear at week 5

B)    Absence of SRY gene leads to male phenotype

C)    Testes develop later than ovaries

D)    External genitalia are well developed by week 10


20)  Gitter cell is

A) Microglia                      B) Modified macrophage

C) Astrocyte         D) Neutrophil


21)  Correct pair for type of synovial joints

A)    Incudo-stapedial : Saddle

B)    Spheno-vomerine : Schindylesis

C)    Atlanto-occipital : Trochoid

D)    Metacarpo-phalangeal : Condylar


22)  Atypical synovial joint is

A)    Knee

B)    Temporo-mandibular

C)    1st carpo-metacarpal

D)    Calcaneo-cuboid

23)  All are the actions of Tensor fascia lata except

A) Hip flexion       B) Hip adduction

C) Knee flexion    D) Knee extension


24)  Untrue about knee menisci is

A)    Menisci are fibrocartilage

B)    Are vascular structures

C)    Coronary ligament connects menisci to the tibia

D)    Reconstructive surgery is recommended in the central part of meniscus


25)  Movements of pronation & supination occurs in all the following joints except

A) Superior radio – ulnar   B) Middle radio – ulnar

C) Inferior radio – ulnar    D) Radio – carpal


26)  Incorrect statement about posterior cruciate ligament is

A)    Attached to the medial femoral condyle

B)    Not lined by synovial membrane

C)    Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia

D)    Damaged in Dash board injuries


27)  Incorrect statement about Morgagni’s hernia

A)    Less common than the Bochdalek variety

B)    Common on right side

C)    Stomach is the most common content

D)    Contents herniate through Larry’s space


28)  A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He is diagnosed with cancer involving the abdominal oesophagus and fundus of the stomach. Which of the following neural structures is most likely associated with the “pain” fibers involved with this symptom

A)    Greater splanchnic nerves

B)    Lumbar splanchnic nerves

C)    Postganglionic fibers from the celiac ganglion

D)    Nerves from spinal cord levels T1 to T4


29)  Injury to the male urethra at the level of perineal membrane, causes urine to accumulate in all of the following except

A) Superficial perineal pouch

B) Deep perineal pouch

C) Space of Retzius

D) Pouch of Douglas


30)  All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except

A)    Mucosa is tightly adherent to the underlying musculature

B)    Mucosa is smooth

C)    It is lined by transitional epithelium

D)    It is derived from the urogenital sinus


31)  Supports of the uterus are all except

A)    Sacro-cervical ligament

B)    Round Ligament

C)    Transverse cervical ligament

D)    Levator ani


32)  Duct of Balini is present in?

A) Kidney                         B) Pancreas

C) Intestine                                   D) Salivary gland


33)  Blood supply of breast is from all except

  1. Internal mammary
  2. Intercostal
  3. Thoracodorsal branch of subscapular
  4. Superior Thoracic


34)  Cells of the adrenal medulla are derived from the same embryonic cells as those that form

A)    Kidney collecting tubules

B)    Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

C)    Mandible

D)    Thymus


35)  Segmental resection was performed removing part of liver lying left of the falciform ligament. The segments still retained in the left surgical liver are

A) 2, 3                   B) 1, 4

C) 2, 4                   D) 1, 4, 5


36)  Wrong about neuroepithelium

A)    Simple cuboidal epithelium

B)    Present in cochlea & vestibule

C)    Present in nasal mucosa

D)    Are sensory cells for the reception of taste


37)  Which of the following is least vascular structure in the Temporo-mandibular joint

A)    Articular cartilage

B)    Posterior part of Articular disc

C)    Middle part of articular disc

D)    Mandibular fossa


38)  In pemphigus vulgaris structure of desmosomes is damaged. The wrong statement is

A)    Autoantibodies disrupt macula adherens

B)    Cadherin disruption lead to severe blistering of skin

C)    Zona occludens & gap junctions are normal

D)    Epithelium separates from the basal lamina


39)  Axillary skin glands producing viscous secretion are

A)    Eccrine sweat glands

B)    Apocrine sweat glands

C)    Mucous gland

D)    Holocrine sebaceous glands


40)  Gall bladder is lined by

A)    Brush bordered columnar epithelium

B)    Striated columnar epithelium

C)    Pseudostratified columnar cells

D)    Ciliated columnar cells


41)  Osteoclast cells are derived from which cell type

A) Monocyte         B) Osteoprogenitor

C) Osteoblast        D) Osteocyte


42)  All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis except

A)    Mastoid process

B)    Greater trochanter of femur

C)    Lesser trochanter of femur

D)    Deltoid tuberosity


43)  A young player receives lateral blow to his knee and undergoes a twisting fall while playing Football. Which of the following conditions has occurred

A)    Ruptured medial collateral ligament

B)    Posterior cruciate ligament tear

C)    Evulsion of the intracapsular origin of popliteus

D)    Lateral meniscal tear


44)  Epiphysio-diaphyseal joint is

A) Primary cartilaginous   B) Synostosis

C) Syndesmosis                D) Schindylesis


45)  Flexor pollicis longus  has the same innervation as of the following muscle

A)    Flexor digitorum superficialis

B)    Palmaris longus

C)    Pronator teres

D)    Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger


46)  All of the following statements are true concerning vertebral body and spina bifida defects except

A)    Missing component of ventral sclerotome can lead to scoliosis

B)    Failure of fusion of dorsal sclerotome components lead to spina bifida

C)    Spina bifida is frequently associated with Arnold–Chiari malformation

D)    Spina bifida with myeloschisis is the least severe variation


47)  Gustatory cortex is situated in

A)    Superior Temporal Gyrus

B)    Inferior Frontal Gyrus

C)    Superior Frontal Gyrus

D)    Inferior Parietal Gyrus


48)  Which of the following reach Ventro postero-medial thalamic nuclei

A) Solitario-thalamic                     B) Dentatothalamic

C) Spinothalamic              D) Medial lemniscus


49)  Optic radiation arises from

A)    Lateral geniculate body

B)    Superior colliculus

C)    Inferior colliculus

D)    Medial geniculate body


50)  Which of the following is not true about thymus

  1. Lies in the anterior and superior mediastinum
  2. Has maximum size by 5 years of age and then it regresses
  3. It is a primary lymphoid organ
  4. It also produces hormones


51)  The accessory obturator artery is a branch of

A) Inferior epigastric                    B) External iliac

C) Internal iliac                 D) Obturator


52)  Afferents of cremasteric reflex are present in nerve

A) Ilioinguinal                   B) Genitofemoral

C) Iliohypogastric                         D) Pudendal


53)  In homonymous hemianopia due to occipital lobe infarction there is macular sparing because of blood supply from

A)    Posterior cerebral

B)    Opposite posterior cerebral

C)    Middle cerebral

D)    Anterior choroidal


54)  Which of the following fibers don’t pass through the posterior limb of internal capsule

A) Sublentiform                B) Retrolentiform

C) Corticonuclear              D) Dorsal column


55)  Which nerve carries special visceral efferent fibers

A)    3rd

B)    4th

C)    6th

D)    7th


56)  All of the following statements about the vagus nerve are true except that it

A)    Carries the GVE neural column

B)    Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

C)    Innervates right two third of transverse colon

D)    Stimulates peristalsis & relaxes sphincters


57)  The auditory pathway consists of all of the following except

A)    Spiral ganglion

B)    Superior olivary nucleus

C)    Medial lemniscus

D)    Inferior colliculus


58)  A patient has the ability to stand erect with eyes open but falls with closed eyes. The axonal pathway lesioned is

A)    Dorsal spino-cerebellar

B)    Ventral spino-cerebellar

C)    Medial lemniscus

D)    Spinal lemniscus


59)  The centre for vertical gaze is

A)    Abducent nucleus

B)    Nucleus prepositus

C)    Rostral interstitial nucleus

D)    Para-pontine reticular formation


60)  What is incorrect regarding parasympathetic nervous system

A)    The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is responsible for pupillary dilation

B)    Cholinergic drugs may cause frequency of micturition

C)    Cholinergic activity induces salivation

D)    Anticholinergic drugs may cause constipation


61)  Which of the following statements concerning the lateral horn of the spinal cord is true

A)    It contains postganglionic parasympathetic neurons

B)    It gives rise to a spinothalamic tract

C)    It is present at all spinal cord levels

D)    It gives rise to preganglionic para-sympathetic fibers


62)  All of the following are features of large intestine, Except

A)    Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools

B)    It is a site of mucocutaneous junction

C)    Its epithelium contains goblet cells in large numbers

D)    Absorbs salt and water



63)  Which of the following pathway is involved in the ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand

A)    Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

B)    Anterior spinothalamic tract

C)    Posterior spinothalamic tract

D)    Dorsal column


64)  Efferents in superior cerebellar peduncle arise mostly from

A)    Purkinje cells

B)    Stellate neurons

C)    Deep nuclei

D)    Grade III fibers


65)  Not a branch of basilar artery

A)    Posterior cerebral artery

B)    Labyrinthine artery

C)    Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

D)    Superior cerebellar artery


66)  All of the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except

A)    They have centrally located nuclei

B)    They are derived from neural crest cells

C)    They are multipolar

D)    Situated in  the intervertebral foramina


67)  In polio contracture of the iliotibial tract leads to all except

  1. Hip flexion and abduction
  2. Lateral rotation of tibia
  3. Knee flexion
  4. Varus deformity at knee


68)  Injection of hypertonic saline into the carotid artery causes activation of the hypothalamus via which of the following

A)    Medial nucleus of the hypothalamus

B)    Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

C)    Preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

D)    Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus


69)  True about sympathetic chain is

A)    Totally it has 31 ganglia

B)    Myelinated post ganglionic fibers

C)    Passes from skull to coccyx

D)    White rami are present at all levels


70)  Fibers of the accessory cuneate nucleus terminate in the

A)    Spinal cord

B)    Medulla

C)    Midbrain

D)    Cerebellar cortex


71)  Tactile discrimination  from lower limb is carried by

A)    Ipsilateral gracile fasciculus

B)    Contralateral cuneatus fasciculus

C)    Anterior spinothalamic tract

D)    Dorsal spinocerebellar tract


72)  Brodmann number of Wernicke’s sensory speech area is

A)    3 b

B)    22

C)    39

D)    44


73)  Pupillary light reflex includes all except

A)    Ganglion cells of retina

B)    Lateral geniculate body

C)    Pre-tectal nucleus

D)    Edinger Westphal nucleus


74)  Choose the incorrect statement regarding cerebellum

A)    Coordinates motor activity & Maintains posture, equilibrium and muscle tone

B)    Middle peduncle sends dentatothalamic tract to VL thalamic nucleus

C)    Dorsal spinocerebellar tract passes through Inferior peduncle

D)    In children, 70% of brain tumours are found in posterior fossa, originating mostly from cerebellum


75)  Pudendal nerve supplies which part of the urinary bladder?

  1. Detrusor muscle
  2. Internal sphincter
  3. External sphincter
  4. All of the above


76)  Arterial supply of motor area of cerebral cortex is by

A)    Anterior cerebral artery

B)    Middle cerebral artery

C)    Posterior cerebral artery

D)    Anterior and middle cerebral artery


77)  While doing surgery for meningioma on cerebral hemisphere, there occurred injury to left paracentral lobule; it will lead to paresis of

A)    Left face

B)    Right neck and scapular region

C)    Right leg and perineum

D)    Right shoulder and trunk


78)  Untrue about pharyngeal arch derivatives

A)    Anterior 2/3 tongue develops from 1st pharyngeal arch

B)    Laryngeal cartilages are derived from 4th & 6th arch

C)    Branchial cyst is persistent cervical sinus

D)    Buccinator is mesodermal derivative of first arch


79)  Injury to which nerve during a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of scrotum and base of penis.

A. Ilioinguinal                   B. Pudendal

C. Genitofemoral              D. Iliohypogastric


80)  True about upper end of tibia are all except

  1. Ossification centre at the upper end fuses by 20 years
  2. It gives attachment to medial collateral ligament
  3. It gives attachment to semi-membranous
  4. Posterior aspect of patella articulates with upper end of tibia laterally


81)  Typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic by all of the following except

A)    Oval body

B)    Foramen transversarium

C)    Superior articular facet directed backwards & upwards

D)    Small body


82)  Choose the correct statement regarding the endodermal derivatives of branchial arch pouches

A)    First : Tympanic antrum

B)    Second :  Tubotympanic recess

C)    Third :  Ultimo branchial body

D)    Fourth :  Inferior parathyroid


83)  A newborn baby is noted to have a left unilateral cleft lip. There are no abnormalities of the baby’s palate. Which of the following developmental defects accounts for this occurrence 

A)    Failure of the left lateral palatine process to fuse with the median palatine process

B)    Failure of the left maxillary prominence to unite with the left medial nasal prominence

C)    Failure of the right and left medial nasal prominences to merge

D)    Failure of the left maxillary process to fuse with the left medial nasal process


84)  A patient presents with a chief complaint of chronic nose-bleeds. To control the severity of these nosebleeds, his physician decides to ligate the sphenopalatine artery. From which of the following arteries does the sphenopalatine artery arise

A)    External carotid

B)    Facial

C)    Maxillary

D)    Ophthalmic


85)  A thyroid mass usually moves with swallowing because the thyroid gland is enclosed by which of the following fascia

A)    Carotid sheath

B)    Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia

C)    Pretracheal fascia

D)    Prevertebral fascia


86)  All of the following pass behind ischial spine except

  1. Obturator nerve
  2. Pudendal nerve
  3. Internal pudendal vessels
  4. Nerve to obturator internus


87)  Subdural haemorrhage has occurred due to venous bleeds. Which veins are involved

A)    Bridging

B)    Middle meningeal

C)    Subarachnoid

D)    Pterygoid


88)  Obstruction to the flow of CSF at the aqueduct of Sylvius will most likely lead to the enlargement of which ventricles?

A)    Only lateral ventricle

B)    Only third ventricle

C)    Both lateral and third ventricles

D)    Fourth ventricle


89)  Cuneus is separated from the lingual gyrus by the sulcus

A)    Rhinal

B)    Parieto-occipital

C)    Calcarine

D)    Collateral


90)  Transverse arch of foot is maintained by

A. Flexor digitorum brevis            B. Adductor hallucis

C. Abductor hallucis brevis          D. Peroneus brevis


91)  Following are the pairs describing skull foramina and the nerves related. Choose the correct pair

A)    Foramen rotundum: Mandibular nerve

B)    Foramen ovale: Maxillary nerve

C)    Foramen spinosum: ophthalmic nerve

D)    Internal acoustic meatus: Nerves intermedius


92)  Kiesselbach’s area has been damaged in a fist fight. The main artery to the area is

A)    Anterior ethmoidal

B)    Posterior ethmoidal

C)    Spheno-palatine

D)    Greater palatine


93)  Nerve carrying sense of taste from circumvallate papillae placed on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is:

A)    Chorda tympani

B)    Lingual

C)    Glossopharyngeal

D)    Vagus


94)  Muscles of the anterior compartment of the  leg are innervated primarily by

A. Deep peroneal nerve

B. Superficial peroneal nerve

C. Sural nerve

D. Saphenous nerve


95)  The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it

A)    Carries secretomotor fibers to the parotid gland

B)    Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa

C)    Is a branch of facial nerve

D)    Contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers


96)  In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, loss of taste sensations from palate would be due to lesion in

A)    Trigeminal ganglion

B)    Deep petrosal nerve

C)    Greater petrosal nerve

D)    Cervical ganglion


97)  A patient has a dry eye and reduced nasal secretions. The location of a lesion might be in the

A)    Otic ganglion

B)    Sphenopalatine ganglion

C)    Ciliary ganglion

D)    Superior cervical ganglion


98)  Contraction of the tensor tympani and the stapedius prevents damage to the eardrum and inner ear. These muscles are controlled by which of the following nerves

A)    Tympanic and chorda tympani  nerve

B)    Trigeminal and facial nerves

C)    Facial and auditory nerves

D)    Trigeminal and accessory nerves


99)  A patient arrives in the emergency room after having suffered severe head trauma in a motorcycle accident. Radiographic studies of the head reveal a basilar skull fracture in the region of the foramen ovale. Which of the following functional losses would most likely be related to this injury

A)    Loss of abduction of the eye

B)    Loss of sensation over the forehead

C)    Loss of sensation over the zygoma

D)    Paralysis of anterior belly of digastric


100)    All is true about accessory nerve except

A)    Cranial part belongs to SVE column

B)    Spinal part supplies sternomastoid and trapezius

C)    Cranial part supplies all pharyngeal muscles except palatopharyngeus

D)    Cranial part supplies all palatal muscles except tensor veli palate


101)    The subtalar joint is formed between

  1. Talus, malleoli and lower tibia
  2. Talus and calcaneum
  3. Talus and navicular
  4. Calcaneum and cuboid


102)    Pain felt between great toe and 2nd toe is due to involvement of which nerve root

A. L5         B. S1   C. S2   D. S3


103)    A benign tumour in the pterygoid canal would spare which of the following nerve fibers

A)    Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

B)    Taste fibers from the palate

C)    Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

D)    General visceral afferent (GVA) fibers


104)    A patient with crocodile tears syndrome has spontaneous lacrimation during eating due to misdirection of regenerating autonomic nerve fibers. Which of the following nerves has been injured

A)    Facial nerve proximal to the geniculate ganglion

B)    Chorda tympani in the infratemporal fossa

C)    Facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen

D)    Lacrimal nerve


105)    Excessive contraction of following muscle causes dislocation of jaw

A)    Temporalis

B)    Lateral pterygoid

C)    Medial pterygoid

D)    Zygomaticus Major


106)    Medial medullary syndrome is commonly due to lesion of the artery

A)    Posterior inferior cerebellar

B)    Anterior inferior cerebellar

C)    Vertebral

D)    Basilar


107)    Safety muscle of larynx

A)    Lateral cricoarytenoid

B)    Posterior cricoarytenoid

C)    Thyroarytenoid

D)    Cricothyroid


108)    Extradural haematoma occurs commonly due to the rupture of a vessel , which passes through

A)    Foramen rotundum

B)    Foramen spinosum

C)    Foramen lacerum

D)    Inferior orbital fissure


109)    If a patient is unable to tense the vocal cords during high pitch singing, which of the following muscles is paralyzed

A)    Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle

B)    Cricothyroid muscle

C)    Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

D)    Thyroarytenoid muscle


110)    Lymph from heel and lateral aspect of foot first drains into

A. Popliteal lymph nodes  B. Deep inguinal

C. Superficial inguinal      D. Obturator node


111)    A patient is unable to invert the foot, indicating lesions of which of the following nerves

  1. Superficial and deep peroneal
  2. Deep peroneal and tibial
  3. Superficial peroneal and tibial
  4. Medial and lateral plantar


112)    Which of the following cranial nerves exit/enter through the foramina in posterior cranial fossa

A) 3rd to 12th                    B) 4th to 12th

C) 5th to 12th                   D) 7th to 12th


113)    The narrowest part of ureter is

A. Uretero pelvic Junction

B. Iliac vessel crossing

C. Pelvic ureter

D. Uretero vesical junction


114)    The cranial nerve with the longest intra-cranial course is

A)    Abducens nerve

B)    Trochlear nerve

C)    Optic nerve

D)    Trigeminal nerve


115)    Which of the following is not supplied by hypoglossal nerve

A)    Genio-hyoid

B)    Thyrohyoid

C)    Genio-glossus

D)    Palato-glossus


116)    Hemivertebra is a defect of

A)    Body

B)    Transverse process

C)    Spine

D)    Posterior vertebral arches


117)    A newborn baby has a prominent defect at the base of his spine through which his meninges and spinal cord protrude. A failure of which of the following processes is the most common cause of this type of defect  

A)    Development of primary vertebral ossification centers

B)    Development of the pedicle

C)    Development of the superior articular process

D)    Fusion of the vertebral arches


118)    True regarding common bile duct is all except

A. Opens 10 cm distal to the pylorus

B. Lies anterior to I.V.C.

C. Portal vein lies posterior to it

D. Usually opens into duodenum separate from the main pancreatic duct


119)    These ventral spinal rootlets are less prone to injury during decompressive operations because they are longer and exit in a more oblique direction

A) C5        B) C6              C) T5               D) L5


120)    The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of

A) Pericardium      B) Mesocardium

C) Myocardium     D) Endocardium


121)    Absence of  conotruncal septum gives rise to

A)    Tetralogy of Fallot

B)    Patent truncus arteriosus

C)    Transposition of great vessels

D)    Coarctation of aorta


122)    Intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of thoracic nerve

A) First                  B) Second

C) Third                D) Fourth


123)    True about right phrenic nerve is

A)    Arise from the dorsal rami of C3,4,5

B)    Descends posterior to the hilum of lungs

C)    Supplies diaphragmatic peritoneum

D)    Passes through oesophageal opening


124)    A patient has aspiration pneumonitis develops chest pain with dullness on percussion in area medial to the medial border of scapula on the elevation of arm. Which part of lung is most likely to be affected

A)    Right medial basal lobe

B)    Right superior lobe

C)    Right apical lobe

D)    Right Posterior basal lobe


125)    Ligamentum arteriosum attachment is between                                

A)    Left pulmonary artery and arch of aorta

B)    Arch and descending thoracic aorta

C)    Ascending and descending thoracic aorta

D)    Pulmonary trunk and left principal bronchus


126)    Middle part of interventricular septum is supplied by the artery

A)    Posterior interventricular

B)    Left anterior descending

C)    Circumflex artery

D)    Acute marginal artery


127)    All are hybrid muscles except

A)    Brachioradialis

B)    Pectoralis major

C)    Brachialis

D)    Flexor digitorum profundus


128)    In C-5,6 lesion following pair of muscles may not be paralyzed

A) Coraco-brachialis         B) Biceps brachii

C) Brachialis                     D) Brachio-radialis


129)    All of the following muscles strictly receive nerve supply from anterior interosseous nerve except

A)    Pronator quadratus

B)    Flexor pollicis longus

C)    Flexor digitorum profundus of index finger

D)    Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger


130)    Following pairs describe the muscles producing flexion at elbow joint & their respective nerve. Choose the wrong pair

A)    Biceps brachii: Musculocutaneous nerve

B)    Brachioradialis: Median nerve

C)    Flexor carpi ulnaris: Ulnar nerve

D)    Flexor carpi radialis: Median nerve


131)    During knife fight a person gets injured in the neck region and presents to emergency department with weakness in raising right arm above head. On further examination winging of right scapula is noted. The injury has damaged

A)    Spinal accessory nerve

B)    Long thoracic nerve of Bell

C)    Suprascapular nerve

D)    Dorsal scapular nerve


132)    The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by

A)    Coracoclavicular ligament

B)    Coracoacromial ligament

C)    Costoclavicular ligament

D)    Coracohumeral ligament


133)    Regarding the anatomical snuffbox which of the following is true

A)    Abductor Pollicis longus forms the posterior wall

B)    Abductor pollicis longus and Extensor Pollicis brevis form the lateral wall

C)    Basilic vein forms the roof

D)    Floor is formed by Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis


134)    Ante-verted Position of uterus is maintained by ligament

A. Cardinal                       B. Uterosacral

C. Pubo-cervical    D. Round


135)    A patient is brought to the emergency with history of trauma to his right upper limb. Extension of metacarpo-phalangeal is lost. There is no wrist drop and extension of IP joint is normal. The most likely nerve involved is

A)    Ulnar nerve

B)    Median nerve

C)    Radial nerve

D)    Posterior interosseous nerve


136)    All of the following are features of musculocutaneous nerve injury at axilla except

A)    Loss of flexion at shoulder

B)    Loss of flexion at elbow

C)    Loss of supination of forearm

D)    Loss of sensation on radial side of forearm


137)    If the greater tuberosity of the humerus is lost which of the following movements will be affected

A)    Adduction and flexion

B)    Abduction and lateral rotation

C)    Medial rotation and adduction

D)    Flexion and medial rotation


138)    C8,T1 supplies following muscles except

A)    Extensor indicis

B)    3rd & 4th lumbrical(s)

C)    Abductor pollicis brevis

D)    Palmar interossei


139)    Sensory innervation of index finger is by

A)    T2

B)    Tl

C)    C8

D)    C7


140)    Attached to radial styloid process is

A)    Brachioradialis

B)    Pronator quadratus

C)    Pronator teres

D)    Lateral collateral ligament


141)    Injury to radial nerve at wrist leads to

A)    Wrist drop

B)    Sensory loss on dorsum of 1st web space

C)    Paralysis of adductor pollicis

D)    Loss of supination in extended position


142)    Injury of ulnar nerve at the wrist would cause all except

A)    Paralysis of 3rd and 4th lumbrical(s)

B)    Paralysis of dorsal interossei

C)    Adductor pollicis paralysis

D)    Flexor pollicis brevis paralysis


143)    Which bronchopulmonary segment is not present in the left lung

A)    Antero-basal

B)    Postero-basal

C)    Medial basal

D)    Lateral basal


144)    A 56-year-old man is undergoing a cardiac operation. During the procedure, a ligature is passed into the transverse pericardial sinus. Which of the following vascular structures can now be easily secured by tying the ligature, thus stopping the flow of blood

A)    Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava

B)    Superior vena cava and right pulmonary veins

C)    Aorta and superior vena cava

D)    Aorta and pulmonary trunk


145)    True about lumbricals is

A)    Flex IP joints and extends MCP joint

B)    1st and 2nd supplied by radial nerve

C)    3 and 4 supplied by superficial branch of ulnar

D)    Origin from tendons of flexor digitorum profundus


146)    Which is true about axillary artery

A)    Pectoralis major divides it into three parts

B)    Thoracoacromial is a branch of 2nd part

C)    Superior thoracic is a branch of 3rd part

D)    Subscapular is a branch of 1st part


147)    All are true except

A)    Midpalmar space communicates with facial sheath of third lumbrical

B)    Midpalmar space communicates with forearm space

C)    Thenar space communicates with fascial sheath of  first lumbrical

D)    Midpalmar space drained through 3/4th web space


148)    Posterior interosseous nerve runs under which compartment of extensor retinaculum

A)    1st

B)    2nd

C)    3rd

D)    4th


149)    Pronation is lost in lesions of

A)    Median nerve

B)    Ulnar nerve

C)    Radial nerve

D)    Posterior interosseous nerve


150)    Supinator has the same innervation as of the following muscle

A)    Biceps brachii

B)    Pronator quadratus

C)    Extensor digitorum

D)    Brachioradialis


151)    A patient arrives in the emergency room after having attempted suicide by lacerating his wrist. No major artery was damaged, but the nerve that is immediately lateral to the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon is cut. Which of the following actions will no longer be possible

A)    Abduction of the second digit

B)    Adduction of the second digit

C)    Flexion at the interphalangeal joint of the thumb

D)    Opposition of the thumb


152)    True statement about upper half of anal canal is

A. Insensitive to pain

B. Drained by superficial inguinal lymph node

C. Lined by squamous epithelium

D. Supplied by superior mesenteric artery


153)    de Quervain’s disease is characterized by

A)    Compression of the median nerve at the wrist

B)    Stenosing tenovaginitis of peroneus tendon

C)    Compression of ulnar nerve at the wrist

D)    Stenosing vaginitis of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis


154)    A patient came with history of fall and on examination there was tenderness between the extensor pollicis longus and brevis. The likely lesion is

A)    Scaphoid #

B)    1st metacarpal #

C)    Lower end of radius #

D)    Trapezoid #


155)    All is true about splenic artery except

A)    Is a branch of celiac artery

B)    Lies along superior border of pancreas

C)    Is an end artery

D)    Runs in Spleno-renal ligament


156)    At birth, an infant presents with a stomach that has herniated into the diaphragm. Where is the defect that resulted in the herniation

A)    Oesophageal hiatus

B)    Pleuroperitoneal membrane

C)    Septum transversum

D)    Right crus


157)    The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures      

A)    Dorsal mesogastrium

B)    Pericardio-peritoneal canal

C)    Pleuro-pericardial membranes

D)    Ventral mesentery


158)    Regarding Gastroschisis and omphalocele, which one is false

A)    Intestinal obstruction is common in gastroschisis

B)    Liver is the content of omphalocele

C)    Gastroschisis is associated with multiple anomalies

D)    Umbilical cord is attached in normal position in gastroschisis


159)    Vitelline vein forms

A)    Ligamentum venosum

B)    Ligamentum teres

C)    Portal vein

D)    Superior vena cava


160)    Ventral pancreatic bud forms

A)    Head of pancreas and uncinate process

B)    Head and body of pancreas

C)    Inferior part of pancreas

D)    Tail of pancreas


161)    An infant presents with gastroschisis at birth. Which of the following applies to this condition

a)      It is also seen in patients with aganglionic megacolon

b)      It results from herniation at the site of regression of the right umbilical vein

c)      It is caused by a failure of recanalization of the midgut part of the duodenum

d)     It is caused by failure of the midgut to return to the abdominal cavity after herniation into the umbilical stalk


162)    Which of the following structure in glomerulus has pores?

  1. Parietal epithelial cell
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Capillary endothelium
  4. B + C


163)    Untrue about Hirschsprung disease

A)    Occurs due to non-migration of neural crest cells

B)    Developmental failure Auerbach and Meissner’s plexus in the gut

C)    Distal  large intestine is aperistaltic and spastic

D)    Absent sympathetic activity in the affected region


164)    Untrue about ureteric bud

A)    Endodermal derivative

B)    Arises from Wolffian duct

C)    Forms collecting tubules

D)    Penetrates metanephric tissue


165)    Following statements describe the development of diaphragm. Choose the incorrect statement

A)    The dorsal mesentery of the oesophagus gives rise to the crura

B)    Defect in the pleuro-peritoneal membrane leads to Morgagni’s hernia

C)    Body wall contributes for the peripheral muscular component

D)    The septum transversum descends to T8 from C3-5 following rapid growth of neural tube


166)    Following are the boundaries of epiploic foramen except

A)    Free margin of lesser omentum

B)    Inferior vena cava

C)    Quadrate lobe of liver

D)    Right adrenal


167)    A 38-year-old woman with a history of heartburn suddenly experiences excruciating pain in the epigastric region of the abdomen. Surgery is performed immediately upon admission to the emergency room. There is evidence of a ruptured ulcer in the posterior wall of the stomach. Where will a surgeon first find the stomach contents

A)    Pouch of Morrison

B)    Cul-de-sac of Douglas

C)    Omental bursa

D)    Paracolic gutter


168)    Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is

A)    Pectoralis major

B)    Teres minor

C)    Semimembranosus

D)    Gastrocnemius


169)    All is true about Trochlear nerve except

A)    Longest intracranial course

B)    Arise from dorsal aspect

C)    Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique

D)    Arises from out side the common tendinous ring


170)    Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all except

A)    Sphincter urethra

B)    Perineal body

C)    Colles’ fascia

D)    Perineal membrane


171)    All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except

A)    Bulb/Root of penis

B)    Dorsal nerve of penis

C)    Sphincter urethra

D)    Bulbo urethral glands


172)    Which of the following is not a content of  the pudendal canal 

A. Pudendal nerve

B. Internal pudendal artery

C. Internal pudendal vein

D. Nerve to obturator internus


173)    All of the following arteries supply medulla except

a. Post inferior cerebellar

b. Basilar

c. Anterior spinal

d. Bulbar

174)    GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid tissue) is present in

a. Submucosa

b. Lamina propria

c. Muscularis mucosa

d. Adventitia/Serosa


175)    Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part

A. 1st                    B. 2nd

C. 3rd                     D. Terminal


176)    Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes

A) Superficial inguinal      B) External Iliac

C) Deep inguinal               D) Aortic


177)    Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substance

A) Uncus               B) Limen insulae

C) 3rd Ventricle    D) Optic chiasma


178)    Auerbach’s ganglia in the muscularis externa contain the autonomic neurons bodies of the type

A)    Pre-ganglionic sympathetic

B)    Pre-ganglionic para-sympathetic

C)    Post-ganglionic sympathetic

D)    Post-ganglionic para-sympathetic


179)    Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because

A)    It is not over prominent bone

B)    Pulse is weak

C)    It is deep seated

D)    It is both deep seated and not over prominent bone


180)    Chief Cells are found in

a) Fundus              b) Pit

c) Neck                  d) Body


181)    Thoracic duct receives tributaries from all the following except

A)    Bilateral ascending lumbar ducts

B)    Bilateral descending thoracic ducts

C)    Left upper intercostal ducts

D)    Right bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunk


182)    Which of the following structures does not  penetrate perineal membrane

A. Dorsal N of penis

B. Dorsal Artery of penis

C. Internal pudendal artery

D. Urethra


183)    All the following are branches of cavernous part of Internal carotid artery except

A)    Ophthalmic Artery

B)    Branches to cavernous sinus

C)    Hypophyseal artery

D)    Meningeal artery


184)    Venous return of lower limb on standing from the supine posture depends on all except

A)    Deep fascia sleeve

B)    Arterial pressure

C)    Valves of perforators

D)    Calf muscle contraction


185)    Which of the following movements doesn’t not happen in abduction of shoulder

A)    Medial rotation of scapula

B)    Elevation of humerus

C)    Rotation of Clavicle at the sterno clavicular joint

D)    Rotation at the axis of acromioclavicular joint


186)    Which of the following brainstem nuclei is not derived from alar plate

A) Dentate                        B) Inferior olivary

C) Hypoglossal     D) Substantia nigra


187)    Sternocleidomastoid is not supplied by the artery

A) Superior thyroid                       B) Thyrocervical trunk

C) Occipital                       D) Post auricular


188)    Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to the nerve

A) Superior gluteal                        B) Inferior gluteal

C) Obturator                     D) Tibial

189)    Mitral cells are present in

A. Kidney                         B. Mitral valve

C. Olfactory tract              D. Optic nerve


190)    All are seen in Horner’s syndrome except

A)    Heterochromia iridis

B)    Ptosis

C)    Miosis

D)    Apparent exophthalmos


191)    All the true about inguinal canal except

A)    Conjoint tendon forms part of the posterior wall

B)    Superficial ring is found in external oblique aponeurosis

C)    Deep ring is an opening in transversalis abdominis

D)    Internal oblique forms both anterior and posterior wall


192)    All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except

A)    Sensory and motor

B)    Derived from S2, 3, 4

C)    Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen

D)    Main nerve supply of pelvic organs


193)    Left spinal lemniscus contains which fibers? 

A)    Ipsilateral pain touch temperature

B)    Ipsilateral position vibration sense

C)    Contralateral position vibration sense

D)    Contralateral pain touch temperature


194)    A missile hits the body just above the pubic ramus through the ant abdominal wall it will pierce which of the following structure

A. Urinary bladder                        B. Spinal cord

C. Left renal vein              D. Abdominal aorta


195)    What is false regarding dentate line

A)    Glands of Morgagni open below the line

B)    Anal glands open at the line

C)    Dentate line lies 2 cm(s) above the anal verge.

D)    Transitional epithelium lies above the dentate line


196)    Boundaries of ovarian fossa are

A. Posterior obliterated umbilical artery

B. Ureter posteriorly

C. Uterine tube anteriorly

D. Internal iliac artery laterally


197)    Teratomas may arise from the aberrant migration of

A) Epiblast                        B) Hypoblast

C) Cytotrophoblast           D) Syncytiotrophoblast


198)    The following statements are true about Cauda equina syndrome except

A)    Spinal segments affected are L-3 to Co

B)    Saddle shaped Anaesthesia is observed

C)    Knee and ankle reflexes are lost

D)    Bladder/bowel & sexual functions are damaged severely


199)    Superior rectal vein continues as

A. Superior mesenteric      B. Inferior mesenteric

C. Internal iliac                 D. External iliac


200)    In a patient with a tumor in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all of the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except

A)    Lateral thoracic vein

B)    Internal thoracic vein

C)    Hemiazygos vein

D)         Vertebral venous plexus














  1. C
  2. A
  3. C
  4. C
  5. D
  6. C
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. C
  11. C
  12. B
  13. D
  14. D
  15. B
  16. D
  17. B
  18. D
  19. A
  20. A
  21. B
  22. B
  23. B
  24. D
  25. B
  26. B
  27. C
  28. A
  29. D
  30. D
  31. B
  32. A
  33. C
  34. C
  35. B
  36. A
  37. C
  38. D
  39. B
  40. A
  41. A
  42. D
  43. A
  44. A
  45. D
  46. D
  47. D
  48. A
  49. A
  50. B
  51. A
  52. B
  53. C
  54. C
  55. D
  56. B
  57. C
  58. C
  59. C
  60. A
  61. D
  62. A
  63. D
  64. C
  65. C
  66. C
  67. D
  68. C
  69. C
  70. D
  71. A
  72. B
  73. B
  74. B
  75. C
  76. D
  77. C
  78. D
  79. A
  80. D
  81. C
  82. A
  83. B
  84. C
  85. C
  86. A
  87. A
  88. C
  89. C
  90. B
  91. D
  92. C
  93. C
  94. A
  95. A
  96. C
  97. B
  98. B
  99. D
  100. C
  101. B
  102. A
  103. A
  104. A
  105. B
  106. C
  107. B
  108. B
  109. B
  110. A
  111. B
  112. D
  113. D
  114. B
  115. D
  116. A
  117. D
  118. D
  119. D
  120. D
  121. B
  122. B
  123. C
  124. C
  125. A
  126. B
  127. A
  128. A
  129. D
  130. B
  131. A
  132. A
  133. B
  134. B
  135. D
  136. A
  137. B
  138. A
  139. D
  140. D
  141. B
  142. D
  143. C
  144. D
  145. D
  146. B
  147. B
  148. D
  149. A
  150. C
  151. D
  152. A
  153. D
  154. A
  155. C
  156. B
  157. A
  158. C
  159. C
  160. A
  161. B
  162. C
  163. D
  164. A
  165. B
  166. C
  167. C
  168. A
  169. C
  170. C
  171. A
  172. D
  173. D
  174. B
  175. A
  176. C
  177. B
  178. D
  179. C
  180. A
  181. D
  182. A
  183. A
  184. B
  185. A
  186. C
  187. B
  188. A
  189. C
  190. D
  191. C
  192. D
  193. D
  194. A
  195. D
  196. B
  197. A
  198. D
  199. B
  200. D

4 responses to “Practice Paper 1

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