Practice Paper 2

1)      Second polar body is released

  1. 24 hours before ovulation
  2. At ovulation
  3. 12 hours after ovulation
  4. At fertilization

 

2)      False statement regarding timeline  during developmental stages is

  1. Fertilization occurs within 12-24 hours of ovulation
  2. Blastocyst hatches out of zona pellucida at 5th day post-ovulation
  3. Blastocyst adheres to endometrium on 6th day post ovulation
  4. Utero-placental circulation begins by day 15

 

3)      Physiological hernia regress at

  1. 14 weeks
  2. 10 weeks
  3. 08 weeks
  4. 06 weeks

4)      Teratomas may arise from the aberrant migration of

  1. Primordial germ cells
  2. Hypoblast
  3. Cytotrophoblast
  4. Syncytiotrophoblast

5)      Non-closure of rostral neuropore leads to

  1. Anencephaly
  2. Rachischisis
  3. Omphalocele
  4. Gastroschisis

6)      Which of the following is least vascular structure in the Temporo-mandibular joint

  1. Articular cartilage
  2. Posterior part of Articular disc
  3. Middle part of articular disc
  4. Mandibular fossa

7)      Untrue about articular cartilage is

  1. Covers the articular surfaces of all synovial joints
  2. Is of hyaline variety in all synovial joints
  3. No ossification with age
  4. Is generally devoid of nerves, vessels and perichondrium

8)      Following statements describe the epithelial lining of various body tubes. Choose the incorrect statement

  1. Trachea: Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
  2. Ileum: Striated columnar epithelium
  3. Mucosa below pectinate line: Keratinized stratified squamous
  4. Proximal prostatic urethra: Transitional epithelium

9)      Stereocilia are seen in

  1. Epididymis
  2. Central canal of spinal cord
  3. Olfactory epithelium
  4. Trachea

10)  The following joint permits to do ‘NO’ movement of head

  1. Atlanto-occipital joint
  2. Atlanto-axial joint
  3. C2-C3 joint
  4. C3-C4 joint

11)  The type of joint between the xiphoid process and the body of sternum is a

  1. Symphysis
  2. Synostosis
  3. Synchondrosis
  4. Syndesmosis

12)  Following are given the types of synovial joints. Choose the incorrect pair

  1. Talo-calcaneo-navicular: Ball & socket
  2. Knee: Hinge
  3. Atlanto-axial: Trochoid
  4. Metacarpo-phalangeal: Ellipsoid

13)  Epiphysio-diaphyseal joint is

  1. Synostosis
  2. Synchondrosis
  3. Syndesmosis
  4. Schindylesis

14)  An 80-year-old woman has glands located in the mucous membrane covering the uvula that are non-functional. Which ganglion is most likely injured

  1. Geniculate
  2. Otic
  3. Sphenopalatine
  4. Trigeminal

15)  Which of the following nerves doesn’t pass through the cavernous sinus

  1. Oculomotor
  2. Trochlear
  3. Mandibular nerve
  4. Abducent

16)  Which of the following pathway is involved in the ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand

  1. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
  2. Anterior spinothalamic tract
  3. Lateral spinothalamic tract
  4. Dorsal column

 

17)  A surgery performed in the thyroid region has damaged external laryngeal nerve. The patient will be able to perform all of the following laryngeal movements except

  1. Abduct the vocal cards
  2. Tense the vocal cords
  3. Widen the rima glottidis
  4. Adduct the vocal cords

18)  The taste pathway from posterior 1/3 of the tongue goes through

  1. Chorda tympani branch of Facial nerve
  2. Greater petrosal nerve branch of Facial nerve
  3. Superior laryngeal branch of Vagus nerve
  4. Lingual branch of Glossopharyngeal nerve

 

19)  Safety muscle of tongue

  1. Styloglossus
  2. Genioglossus
  3. Palatoglossus
  4. Hyoglossus

20)  Primary auditory area

  1. Inferior temporal gyrus
  2. Supratemporal plane of superior temporal gyrus
  3. Inferior frontal gyrus
  4. Post central gyrus

21)  All of the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia except

  1. They have centrally located nuclei
  2. They are derived from neural crest cells
  3. They are multipolar
  4. They contain lipofuscin granules

22)  Parotid duct opens opposite to upper

  1. 1st molar
  2. 2nd molar
  3. 2nd premolar
  4. 1st premolar

23)  Sympathetic activation leads to following changes in blood flow except

  1. Gut                   Decreased
  2. Heart:              :Increased
  3. Skin                :Increased
  4. Brain               :Increased

24)  Which of the following structures would be spared if the spinal cord is crushed at the fourth cervical spinal cord level

  1. Dorsal horn
  2. Lateral horn
  3. Duramater
  4. Pia mater

25)  Ptosis in Horner syndrome occurs due to paralysis of

  1. Superior levator palpebrae
  2. Orbicularis oculi
  3. Orbitalis
  4. Tarsal muscle

 

26)  A lesion in the region of anterior spinal horn results in all of the following except

  1. Loss of muscle stretch reflexes
  2. Loss of muscle bulk
  3. Loss of superficial abdominal reflexes
  4. Extensor plantar reflex

 

27)  Sphincter pupillae develop from

  1. Neural plate ectoderm
  2. Surface ectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Neural crest cells

28)  Severance of the oculomotor nerve can cause which of the following conditions

  1. Complete ptosis
  2. A constricted pupil
  3. Impaired lacrimal secretion
  4. Paralysis of the ciliary muscle

 

29)  Choose the wrong statement concerning the epithelial lining of the following ducts

  1. Bartholin’s duct had cuboidal epithelium
  2. Bartholin’s duct has squamous epithelium
  3. Sebaceous duct has cuboidal lining
  4. Pancreatic duct has cuboidal epithelium

30)  In epididymis sperms

  1. Get stored
  2. Get stored & capacitated
  3. Get stored, mature &  gain motility
  4. Get stored, capacitated & gain motility

31)  Wrong statement regarding Cauda Equina syndrome is

  1. May result from intervertebral disc herniation
  2. Lower motor neuron lesion
  3. Symmetric saddle anaesthesia
  4. Areflexia in the legs

32)  Which of the following sinus lies in the margin of the tentorium cerebelli, running from the posterior end of the cavernous sinus to the transverse sinus

  1. Straight sinuses
  2. Inferior sagittal sinus
  3. Sphenoparietal sinus
  4. Superior petrosal sinus

 

33)  Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies

  1. Sternocleidomastoid
  2. Deltoid
  3. Pectoralis major
  4. Levator scapulae

34)  Great vein of Galen is formed by union of

  1. Superior sagittal sinus with vein of Galen
  2. Inferior Sagittal sinus with vein of Galen
  3. Two internal cerebral veins
  4. Basal vein with inferior sagittal sinus

35)  An eroded lesion in the jugular foramen may damage which of the following pair of structures

  1. Vagus nerve and internal carotid artery
  2. Accessory nerve and Sigmoid sinus
  3. Hypoglossal nerve and inferior petrosal sinus
  4. Glossopharyngeal and inferior petrosal sinus

 

36)  Not Mesodermal in origin is

  1. Lung
  2. Kidney
  3. Heart
  4. Uterus

37)  Hirschsprung’s disease is specifically  known as

  1. Congenital megacolon
  2. Aganglionic megacolon
  3. Congenital aganglionic megacolon
  4. Congenital atretic aganglionic megacolon

38)  What is incorrect regarding parasympathetic nervous system

  1. Edinger-Westphal nucleus is responsible for pupillary dilation
  2. Cholinergic drugs may cause frequency of micturition
  3. Cholinergic activity induces salivation
  4. Anticholinergic drugs may cause constipation

39)  In which of the following muscle-nerve pairs is the muscle paired with the nerve that innervates it

  1. Tensor veli palatini-vagus nerve
  2. Palatoglossus muscle-hypoglossal nerve
  3. Cricothyroid muscle-recurrent laryngeal nerve
  4.  Anterior belly of digastric-trigeminal nerve

 

40)  Following muscles are the abductors of eye except

  1. Superior oblique
  2. Superior rectus
  3. Inferior oblique
  4. Lateral rectus

41)  Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by the nerve

  1. Frontal
  2. Facial
  3. Nasociliary
  4. Lacrimal

42)  Which of the following structures pass through the superior aperture of thorax

  1. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
  2. Superior laryngeal nerve
  3. Greater splanchnic nerve
  4. Thoracic duct

 

43)  A nerve is injured in the neck region and there is weakness in raising right arm above head. The injury has damaged

  1. Spinal accessory nerve
  2. Long thoracic nerve of Bell
  3. Suprascapular nerve
  4. Dorsal scapular nerve

44)  Which of the following muscles is involved in flexion of metacarpophalangeal joint and extension of interphalangeal joint of the ring finger

  1. Flexor digitorum profundus
  2. Lumbrical(s)
  3. Extensor digitorum
  4. Flexor digitorum superficialis

45)  Muscles not supplied by ulnar nerve

  1. Flexor pollicis brevis
  2. Flexor carpi ulnaris
  3. Medial half of flexor digitorum superficialis
  4. Third lumbrical

46)  Finger drop with no wrist drop is caused by lesion of

  1. Radial nerve in the radial groove
  2. Posterior interosseous nerve
  3. Anterior interosseous nerve
  4. Ulnar nerve behind medial epicondyle

47)  Nerve supply to hypothenar muscles

  1. Ulnar
  2. Median
  3. Radial
  4. Musculocutaneous

48)  Pancreas is supplied by all of the following arteries except

  1. Coeliac
  2. Splenic
  3. Gastroduodenal
  4. Inferior mesenteric

 

49)  All of the following are contents of deep perineal pouch except

  1. Membranous part of urethra
  2. External urethral sphincter
  3. Transversus perinei profundus
  4. Bartholin’s gland

 

50)  Bulbospongiosus forms a part of

  1. Superficial perineal pouch
  2. Pelvic diaphragm
  3. Levator ani muscle
  4. Urogenital diaphragm

51)  Which of the following structures plays the least important role in the support of the uterus

  1. Levator ani
  2. Sphincter urethrae
  3. Uterosacral ligament
  4. Arcuate pubic ligament

 

52)  A patient experiences heart block as a result of occlusion of a branch of the right coronary artery near the posterior interventricular sulcus. Which structure was most likely affected by the vascular insult

  1. Sino atrial node
  2. A V node
  3. Bundle of His
  4. Vagal branches

53)  All of the following statements are true regarding the entrapment neuropathy of posterior interosseous nerve except

  1. There occurs motor paralysis of extensors of all joints of thumb and knuckles
  2. Extension is possible at the interphalangeal joints of the medial four digits
  3. Attempted wrist extension causes marked radial deviation
  4. The extent of anaesthesia is confined to a small area on the lateral part of dorsum of hand

 

54)  Thoracic duct

  1. Begins at level of T10 vertebra
  2. Enters thorax through aortic opening
  3. Crosses from left to right at level of C7 vertebra
  4. Lies anterior to oesophagus

55)  Ductus arteriosus develops from

  1. 3rd arch artery
  2. 3rd cervical intersegmental
  3. 6th arch artery
  4. 7th cervical intersegmental

56)  Non-spiral course of conotruncal septum gives rise to

  1. Tetralogy of Fallot
  2. Patent truncus arteriosus
  3. Transposition of great arteries
  4. Coarctation of aorta

57)  Anterosuperior migration of AP septum leads to

  1. Tetralogy of Fallot
  2. Patent truncus arteriosus
  3. Transposition of great vessels
  4. Coarctation of aorta

58)  SA node is supplied usually by

  1. Left anterior descending artery
  2. Right coronary artery
  3. Circumflex artery
  4. Posterior interventricular

59)  Which of the following doesn’t drain into coronary sinus

  1. Great cardiac vein
  2. Small cardiac vein
  3. Middle cardiac vein
  4. Anterior cardiac vein

 

60)  Pen test in the hand is performed to assess the neuromuscular status of

  1. Opponens pollicis
  2. Flexor pollicis brevis
  3. Abductor pollicis brevis
  4. 1st palmar interossei

61)  Injury to radial nerve at wrist leads to

  1. Wrist drop
  2. Sensory loss on dorsal side of II  finger
  3. Paralysis of adductor pollicis
  4. Loss of supination in extended position

62)  Flexor pollicis longus has the same innervation as of the following muscle

  1. Flexor digitorum superficialis
  2. Palmaris longus
  3. Pronator teres
  4. Flexor digitorum profundus of middle finger

 

63)  Dorsal scapular artery is related to the scalene anterior

  1. Proximally
  2. Distally
  3. Anteriorly
  4. Posteriorly

64)  Patient’s left foot is plantar flexed and inverted. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured

  1. Common fibular
  2. Deep fibular
  3. Superficial fibular
  4. Tibial

65)  An 83-year-old man has trouble walking. At his physician’s office, he is asked to stand on his right foot and his left hip drops. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged, causing his problem

  1. Left inferior gluteal
  2. Left superior gluteal
  3. Right inferior gluteal
  4. Right superior gluteal

 

66)  The cutaneous nerve supply of the dorsum of foot is given below. Find the correct statement

  1. First interdigital cleft is supplied by superficial peroneal nerve
  2. Most of the dorsum is supplied by the deep peroneal nerve
  3. The lateral margin has tibial nerve territory
  4. The medial margin has peroneal nerve supply

67)  Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by

  1. Ligament of Treitz
  2. Superior mesenteric artery
  3. Falciform ligament
  4. Tail of pancreas

68)  Not present at the level of pylorus

  1. L1 vertebra
  2. Hila of both kidneys
  3. Tip of ninth cartilage
  4. Neck of gallbladder

69)  Transverse colon gets its blood supply from all the following arteries except

  1. Superior mesenteric
  2. Inferior mesenteric
  3. Ileocolic
  4. Middle colic

70)  A 62-year-old man has severe portal hypertension. Which portocaval shunt can be created in this patient to help decrease his blood pressure

  1. Left gastric vein to the splenic vein
  2. Right gastric vein to the left gastric vein
  3. Right renal vein to the right gonadal vein
  4. Splenic vein to the left renal vein

 

71)  During gastrocolostomy, a surgeon is ligating all arteries that send branches to the stomach. Which of the following arteries may be spared

  1. Splenic artery
  2. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
  3. Left gastroepiploic artery
  4. Proper hepatic artery

72)  An obstruction of the inferior mesenteric vein just before joining the splenic vein is most likely to enlarge which of the following veins

  1. Middle colic vein
  2. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal vein
  3. Ileocolic vein
  4. Left colic vein

 

73)  Segment of liver lying between fossa for inferior vena cava and fissure for ligamentum venosum is

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 4a
  4. 4b

74)  A uterine support that extends from the cervix and the lateral fornices of the vagina to the pelvic wall

  1. Broad ligament
  2. Round ligament of the uterus
  3. Suspensory ligament of the ovary
  4. Cardinal ligament

 

75)  Right testicular vein drains into

  1. Right renal vein
  2. Left renal vein
  3. IVC
  4. Internal iliac

76)  A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He is diagnosed with cancer involving the abdominal oesophagus and fundus of the stomach. Which of the following neural structures is most likely associated with the “pain” fibers involved with this symptom

  1. Greater splanchnic nerves
  2. Lumbar splanchnic nerves
  3. Postganglionic fibers from the celiac ganglion
  4. Nerves from spinal cord levels T1 to T4

77)  Wrong statement regarding popliteus is

  1. Intracapsular origin
  2. Causes flexion and medial rotation at knee joint
  3. Locks the knee joint
  4. Supplied by tibial nerve

78)  Which of the following statements best explains the external sphincter urethrae

  1. Smooth muscle
  2.  Innervated by the perineal nerve
  3. Lying between the perineal membrane and Colles’ fascia
  4. Part of the pelvic diaphragm

79)  A 56-year-old woman is diagnosed with a perforated duodenal ulcer. During the surgical repair of this problem, the gastroduodenal artery is ligated. After the completion of this operative procedure, which of the following arteries will continue to supply blood to the pancreas

  1. Inferior mesenteric
  2. Left gastroepiploic
  3. Proper hepatic
  4. Splenic

 

80)  Bochdalek’s hernia is described below. Choose the incorrect statement

  1. Commonest congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  2. Occurs due to a defect in pleuro pericardial membrane
  3. Is a postero-lateral defect in diaphragm
  4. More common on left side

81)  Fascia of Scarpa is

  1. Deep fascia of thigh
  2. Deep membranous layer of anterior abdominal wall
  3. Superficial fatty layer of anterior abdominal wall
  4. Superficial fascia of perineum

82)  Following are the boundaries of epiploic foramen except

  1. Free margin of greater omentum
  2. Inferior vena cava
  3. 1st  part of duodenum
  4. Caudate lobe of liver

83)  Narrowest part of male urethra is

  1. Prostatic part
  2. Membranous part
  3. External urethral meatus
  4. Internal urethral orifice

84)  Nervous system is derived from

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
  4. Notochord

85)  Neural tube closure starts from which region

  1. Cranial
  2. Cervical
  3. Thoracic
  4. Lumbar

86)  Which of the following brainstem nuclei is not derived from alar plate

  1. Dentate
  2. Inferior olivary
  3. Occulomotor
  4. Substantia nigra

87)  3rd ventricle is situated between

  1. Within parietal lobe
  2. Caudate nucleus and putamen
  3. Within temporal lobe
  4. Thalamus and hypothalamus

 

88)  Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located in

  1. Cervical and sacral spinal cord
  2. Thoracic and lower lumbar spinal cord
  3. Brainstem and sacral spinal cord
  4. Thoracic spinal cord

89)  Optic nerve arises from which cell

  1. Rods
  2. Cones
  3. Ganglion
  4. Bipolar

90)  Which of the following is not carried by posterior column tract

  1. Position sense
  2. Temperature
  3. Pressure
  4. Vibration

91)  Medulla oblongata is supplied by branches of all of the following arteries except

  1. Vertebral
  2. Bulbar
  3. Posterior spinal
  4. Basilar

92)  Which of the following muscles is damaged if a patient cannot flex and medially rotate the thigh during running and climbing

  1. Semimembranosus
  2. Rectus femoris
  3. Tensor fasciae latae
  4. Sartorius

93)  All are hamstrings except

  1. Semitendinosus
  2. Semimembranosus
  3. Long head of biceps femoris
  4. Short head of biceps

 

94)  Clergyman’s knee is due to inflammation  of

  1. Suprapatellar bursa
  2. Infrapatellar bursa
  3. Prepatellar bursa
  4. Popliteal bursa

95)  Root value of knee reflex is

  1. L- 2, 3
  2. L- 3, 4
  3. L- 4, 5
  4. S- 1, 2

96)  Following are the nerves and muscles of the leg. Choose the incorrect pair

  1. Tibial: Soleus
  2. Deep peroneal: Peroneus brevis
  3. Tibial: Tibialis Posterior
  4. Common fibular nerve: Short head of biceps

97)  Deltoid ligament is not attached to

  1. Medial cuneiform
  2. Medial malleolus
  3. Sustentaculum tali
  4. Spring ligament

98)  The ligament which transfers weight of arm to the trunk

  1. Costo-clavicular
  2. Coraco-clavicular
  3. Acromio-clavicular
  4. Coraco-humeral

99)  All are composite muscles except

  1. Deltoid
  2. Brachialis
  3. Flexor digitorum profundus
  4. Flexor pollicis brevis

100)    Root value of hand muscles is

  1. C – 5, 6
  2. C – 5, 6, 7
  3. C – 5, 6, 7, 8; T -1
  4. C – 8; T-1
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